Week 1 Multiple Choice Questions 

1. Which of the following combining forms means skin? A. cutane/oB. cyan/oC. melan/oD. onych/o

2. Which of the following combining forms means black? A. cutane/oB. cyan/oC. melan/oD. onych/o

3. Which of the following combining forms means nail? A. cutane/oB. cyan/oC. melan/oD. onych/o

4. Which of the following combining forms means blue? A. cutane/oB. cyan/oC. melan/oD. onych/o

5. Which of the following combining forms means hard? A. kerat/oB. cyan/oC. melan/oD. onych/o

6. All of the following combining forms mean skin except which one? A. cutane/oB. derm/oC. dermat/oD. seb/o

7. Which of the following combining forms means oil? A. kerat/oB. seb/oC. melan/oD. onych/o

8. What is the body's largest organ? A. LiverB. BrainC. StomachD. Skin

9. The skin makes up what percentage of body weight? A. 10%B. 15%C. 25%D. 50%

10. Skin is composed of what two layers? A. Dermis, hypodermisB. Dermis, subcutaneousC. Epidermis, dermisD. Epidermis, hypodermis

11. Which of the following statements describes the epidermis? A. The epidermis has cutaneous glands, hair follicles, and nerve endings.B. The epidermis is the skin's most superficial layer.C. The epidermis is the skin's deepest layer.D. The dermis is composed of loose/areolar connective tissue over dense irregular connective tissue.

12. What is the hypodermis? A. The layer of adipose tissue beneath the dermisB. The layer of skin beneath the dermisC. The layer of loose/areolar connective tissue beneath the dermisD. The layer of stratified squamous epithelial tissue beneath the dermis

13. Where is the dermis in relation to the epidermis and hypodermis? A. Deep to the epidermisB. Superficial to the epidermisC. Deep to the hypodermisD. Deep to the epidermis and superficial to the hypodermis

14. Which layer of skin is best for subcutaneous injections? A. DermisB. EpidermisC. Dermis or hypodermisD. Hypodermis

15. All of the following statements describe the dermis except which one? A. The dermis has cutaneous glands, hair follicles, and nerve endings.B. The dermis is the skin's most superficial layer.C. The dermis is the skin's deepest layer.D. The dermis is composed of loose/areolar connective tissue over dense irregular connective tissue.

16. All of the following are false regarding the hypodermis except which statement? A. The hypodermis is the third layer of skin.B. The hypodermis contains the skin's blood vessels, nerve endings and glands.C. The hypodermis lies deep to the dermis, is composed of adipose tissue, and connects the skin to the body.D. The hypodermis is composed of stratified squamous epithelial tissue.

17. Which of the following is not a layer of the epidermis? A. The stratum basaleB. The stratum lucidumC. The stratum corneumD. The stratum keratum

18. Which layer of the epidermis has cells that are actively growing and dividing to produce new epidermis? A. The stratum basaleB. The stratum lucidumC. The stratum corneumD. The stratum spinosum

19. What type of cell does the stratum basale contain? A. SquamousB. CuboidalC. ColumnarD. Transitional

20. The stratum basale dips into the dermis to form what? A. Nail bedB. HypodermisC. Sweat glandsD. Hair follicle

21. The stratum basale lies deep to which layer of the epidermis? A. The stratum basaleB. The stratum lucidumC. The stratum corneumD. The stratum spinosum

22. All of the following have the stratum lucidum layer of the epidermis except which one? A. Thin skinB. Thick skinC. Skin on the palms of handsD. Skin with no hair

23. Which of the following is the most superficial layer of the epidermis? A. The stratum basaleB. The stratum lucidumC. The stratum corneumD. The stratum spinosum

24. What is the difference in thick skin and thin skin? A. Thin skin is thinner than thick skin.B. Thick skin has hair.C. Thin skin does not have the stratum lucidum layer while thick skin does.D. Thick skin is found all over the body, while thin skin is found on lips, palms of hands and soles of feet.

25. What cell type in the epidermis is responsible for the skin's pigment? A. KeratinocytesB. MelanocytesC. Tactile corpusclesD. Dendritic cells

26. Which cells in the epidermis grow and divide? A. KeratinocytesB. MelanocytesC. Tactile corpusclesD. Dendritic cells

27. What is the hard, waterproof protein that fills keratinocytes? A. MelaninB. KeratinC. SebumD. Corneum

28. What is cornification? A. The process of epidermal cells filling with keratin and moving to the surface of the epidermis to form a durable waterproof layerB. The process of skin pigmentationC. The process of receptors allowing for fine touchD. The process of the immune system being alerted by the presence of pathogens

29. What is the purpose of cornification? A. To form a durable, waterproof layer on the surface of the skinB. To give the skin colorC. To allow skin to feel fine touchD. To protect the skin from pathogens

30. Melanocytes reside in what layer of the epidermis? A. The stratum basaleB. The stratum lucidumC. The stratum corneumD. The stratum spinosum

31. What is the function of tactile corpuscles found in the skin? A. To form a durable, waterproof layer on the surface of the skinB. To give the skin colorC. To allow skin to feel fine touchD. To protect the skin from pathogens

32. Dendritic cells are found in what layer of the epidermis? A. The stratum basaleB. The stratum lucidumC. The stratum corneumD. The stratum spinosum

33. What is the function of dendritic cells in the skin? A. To form a durable, waterproof layer on the surface of the skinB. To give the skin colorC. To allow skin to feel fine touchD. To protect the skin from pathogens

34. Which of the following are not found in the dermis? A. Hair folliclesB. Nerve endingsC. Blood vesselsD. Melanocytes

35. The arrangement of what feature in the dermis creates unique fingerprints? A. KeratinB. PapillaeC. Cutaneous glandsD. Nerve endings

36. What type of connective tissue makes up the dermis? A. Adipose tissue and loose/areolar tissueB. Adipose tissue and dense irregular tissueC. Collagen and elastic tissueD. Loose/areolar tissue and dense irregular tissue

37. Fibroblast produces what two protein fibers in the dermis? A. Loose/areolar and elasticB. Collagen and dense irregularC. Collagen and elasticD. Loose/areolar and dense irregular

38. What is the function of elastic fibers in the skin? A. StrengthB. CushioningC. ExtensibilityD. Elasticity

39. What is the function of collagen fibers in the skin? A. StrengthB. CushioningC. ExtensibilityD. Elasticity

40. What is the definition of elasticity? A. The ability to be stretched.B. The ability to extend.C. The ability to keep shape.D. The ability to return to shape after being stretched.

41. How do vitamin A and C contribute to healthy skin? A. Allow for elasticity.B. Help with collagen production.C. Help with elastic fiber production.D. Help with melanin production.

42. All of the following are functions of the nerve cell endings in the dermis except which one? A. Receptors for warm and coldB. Receptors for pain and pressureC. Receptors for hair movementD. All of the answer choices are functions of the nerve cells in the dermis.

43. What is the function of the sebaceous gland? A. To produce sebumB. To produce milkC. To produce sweatD. To produce cerumen

44. What is the function of sweat? A. Cool the body.B. Nourish an infant.C. Moisturize the skin.D. Waterproof the ear.

45. What is the function of sebum? A. Cool the body.B. Nourish an infant.C. Moisturize the skin and hair.D. Waterproof the ear.

46. Which cutaneous gland produces sebum? A. SebaceousB. MammaryC. ApocrineD. Ceruminous

47. All of the following are functions of lactic acid in sweat except which one? A. Maintain a pH between 4 and 6.B. Produce a scent that influences behavior.C. Forms an acid mantle on the skin.D. Reduces the number of pathogens on the skin.

48. All of the following is true about the hair follicle except which statement? A. Hair follicles are found in the stratum basale.B. Hair follicles are found in thin skin.C. Hair follicles have dermal papillae at its base.D. Hair follicles are found in thick skin.

49. What is the function of the dermal papillae at the base of the hair follicle? A. PigmentationB. StrengthC. TextureD. Nourishment

50. What is the function of keratinocytes as it relates to hair? A. PigmentationB. TextureC. Form the hair matrixD. Move the hair

51. What is considered the hair's growth center? A. KeratinocytesB. Dermal papillaeC. MelanocyteD. Hair follicle

52. What is the function of the arrector pili muscle? A. PigmentationB. StrengthC. MovementD. Nourishment

53. What type of hair is very fine, unpigmented and forms on the developing fetus? A. LanugoB. VellusC. TerminalD. Vellum

54. What type of hair is thick, coarse, and heavily pigmented? A. LanugoB. VellusC. TerminalD. Vellum

55. Which part of the hair extends out from the skin's surface? A. ShaftB. Hair follicleC. BulbD. Root

56. All of the following are layers of hair except which one? A. Inner medullaB. Outer cuticleC. Outer cortexD. Middle cortex

57. What factor affects hair texture? A. The shaft's cross sectional shapeB. The length of the shaftC. The color of the hair shaftD. The amount of keratin in the hair shaft

58. All of the following are stages of the hair's life cycle except which one? A. GrowingB. RestingC. DormantD. Dying

59. All of the following describe the nail plate except which one? A. Free edge of the nailB. Nail bodyC. Visible portion of the nailD. Nail root

60. What type of epidermal cells composes the eponychium of the nail? A. Stratum basale cellsB. Stratum lucidum cellsC. Stratum corneum cellsD. Stratum granulosum cells

61. What is considered the nail's growth center? A. Nail grooveB. Nail plateC. Nail matrixD. Nail fold

62. Which of the following is not a function of nails? A. ProtectionB. GraspingC. ScratchingD. Appearance

63. Which of the following statements is not a description of how skin protects the body? A. Cornified stratum corneum makes it hard for pathogens to enter.B. The skin's surface has an acidic pH.C. The skin has dendritic cells that respond to pathogens.D. All of these are descriptions of how the skin protects the body.

64. Why is vitamin D production by the skin important to the body? A. Vitamin D adds strength to the skin, making it hard to penetrate.B. Vitamin D protects the skin from pathogens.C. Vitamin D protects the skin from UV light.D. Vitamin D is necessary for calcium absorption.

65. How does the process of sweating help the body regulate temperature? A. Sweat is cold and the production of it decreases body temperature.B. Sweat produced on the skin will evaporate and cool the body if body temperature is too high.C. Sweat helps trap cool air against the skin thereby reducing body temperature.D. Sweat causes vasodilation which allows the core temperature of the body to drop.

66. The fact that the epidermis is waterproof allows the skin to perform what function? A. Nonverbal communicationB. Water retentionC. Vitamin D productionD. Sensation

67. What are the two ways in which wounds heal? A. Fibrosis and granulationB. Regeneration and contractureC. Regeneration and fibrosisD. Contracture and granulation

68. Wounds that heal by regeneration result in what? A. The wound is healed with the same tissue that was damaged and normal function is restored.B. The wound is healed with scar tissue and normal function is not restored.C. The wound is healed with the same tissue that was damaged and normal function is not restored.D. The wound is healed with scar tissue and normal function is restored.

69. Wounds that heal by fibrosis result in what? A. The wound is healed with the same tissue that was damaged and normal function is restored.B. The wound is healed with scar tissue and normal function is not restored.C. The wound is healed with the same tissue that was damaged and normal function is not restored.D. The wound is healed with scar tissue and normal function is restored.

70. Which of the following lists the steps to wound healing in the correct order? A. Bleeding and clotting of the wound, wound contracture, granulation tissue fills in the wound's clot, a cut into the dermisB. A cut into the dermis, bleeding and clotting of the wound, granulation tissue fills in the wound's clot, wound contractureC. Wound contracture, a cut into the dermis, bleeding and clotting of the wound, granulation tissue fills in the wound's clotD. A cut into the dermis, bleeding and clotting of the wound, wound contracture, granulation tissue fills in the wound's clot

71. Which of the following is not a sign of inflammation? A. RednessB. CyanosisC. HeatD. Swelling

72. What causes blood vessels to dilate in the process of inflammation? A. The presence of chemical mediators of inflammationB. Too much blood at the site of injuryC. Increased pressure due to swellingD. Increased blood vessel permeability

73. What is the purpose of blood vessel dilation in inflammation? A. To alert the body to the injured areaB. To increase blood flow to the site of injuryC. To cause painD. To cause heat and redness

74. What is the purpose of leaky or permeable blood vessels in the process of inflammation? A. To alert the body to the injured areaB. To increase blood flow to the site of injuryC. To allow fluid and other cells to exit the blood vessel and enter the tissue at the site of injuryD. To cause heat and redness

75. What creates the symptom of pain in the process of inflammation? A. Dilated blood vesselsB. Fluid leaking from blood vessels into tissueC. Pressure from increased fluid in tissues on nerve endingsD. Presence of mediators of inflammation

76. What creates the symptom of redness and heat in the process of inflammation? A. Dilated blood vesselsB. Fluid leaking from blood vessels into tissueC. Pressure from increased fluid in tissues on nerve endingsD. Presence of mediators of inflammation

77. What is the body's response to invasion? A. Dilated blood vesselsB. Fluid leaking from blood vessels into tissueC. Pressure from increased fluid in tissues on nerve endingsD. Inflammation

78. What type of burn is the most common? A. First degree burnB. Second degree burnC. Third degree burnD. Fourth degree burn

79. What type of burn is also referred to as a partial thickness burn? A. First degree burnB. Second degree burnC. Third degree burnD. Fourth degree burn

80. What type of burn involves the epidermis, the dermis and the hypodermis? A. First degree burnB. Second degree burnC. Third degree burnD. Fourth degree burn

81. All of the following are signs of a second degree burns except which one? A. PainB. RednessC. BlistersD. Charring

82. All of the following are signs of a first degree burns except which one? A. PainB. RednessC. BlistersD. Swelling

83. Which of the following is a sign of a third degree burn? A. PainB. RednessC. BlistersD. Charring

84. How can we determine the extent of a burn in relation to the body's surface area? A. The rule of ninesB. The degree of the burnC. The rule of elevenD. The rule percentage

85. Which statement incorrectly describes a change in skin as it ages? A. The dermis gets thinner.B. The skin sags and wrinkles.C. Blood vessels are quicker to respond to temperature regulation.D. The number of dermal sweat glands decreases.

86. Which statement correctly describes the effect of aging on hair? A. Terminal hairs become coarser.B. Hair on scalp becomes thicker.C. Hair follicle sebaceous glands increase in number, causing hair to be oilier.D. Loss of melanocytes in the skin has caused the hair to turn gray.

87. Which type of skin cancer is the most common? A. Basal cell carcinomaB. Squamous cell carcinomaC. Malignant melanomaD. Malignant carcinoma

88. What type of skin cancer starts in the melanocytes? A. Basal cell carcinomaB. Squamous cell carcinomaC. Malignant melanomaD. Malignant carcinoma

89. Which skin cancer starts from keratinocytes in the stratum spinosum? A. Basal cell carcinomaB. Squamous cell carcinomaC. Malignant melanomaD. Malignant carcinoma

90. Which of the following answer choices correctly lists the ABCDs of skin cancer? A. Asymmetry, border, color, diameterB. Asymmetry, border, cancerous, diameterC. Abstract, border, color, diameterD. Asymmetry, border, color, deadly

91. Which skin infection is caused by a bacterium? A. CellulitisB. WartsC. Tinea infectionsD. Cancer

92. Which skin infection is caused by a fungus? A. CellulitisB. WartsC. Tinea infectionsD. Cancer

93. What type of infection causes warts? A. BacteriaB. FungusC. VirusD. Cancerous cells

94. All of the following are examples of fungal skin infections except which one? A. RingwormB. Jock itchC. WartsD. Athlete's foot

95. Cellulitis is caused by what type of infection? A. BacteriaB. FungusC. VirusD. Cancerous cells

96. Which skin infection is caused by a virus? A. CellulitisB. WartsC. Tinea infectionsD. Cancer

Week 2 Multiple Choice Questions 

1. Which of the following combining forms means lymph node? A. lymph/oB. thym/oC. lymphaden/oD. immun/o

2. Which of the following combining forms means thymus gland? A. lymph/oB. thym/oC. lymphaden/oD. immun/o

3. Which of the following combining forms means lymph? A. lymph/oB. thym/oC. lymphaden/oD. immun/o

4. Which of the following combining forms means protection? A. lymph/oB. thym/oC. lymphaden/oD. immun/o

5. Lymph is similar to what other bodily fluid? A. BloodB. PlasmaC. UrineD. Intracellular fluid

6. Which of the following statements about lymph and lymph vessels is false? A. Lymph leaves the system of blood vessels through the capillaries due to blood pressure.B. Lymph returns to the cardiovascular system through a network of open lymph capillaries and vessels that drain the tissues of lymph.C. Valves inside the lymph vessels direct the flow of lymph in either direction.D. Lymph vessels eventually drain into one of two collecting ducts, the thoracic duct and the right lymphatic duct.

7. Which of the following statements about lymph and lymph vessels is true? A. Lymph leaves the system of blood vessels through the veins due to blood pressure.B. Lymph returns to the cardiovascular system through a network of open lymph capillaries and vessels that drain the tissues of lymph.C. Valves inside the lymph vessels direct the flow of lymph in either direction.D. Lymph vessels eventually drain into one collecting duct.

8. Where do the thoracic and right lymphatic ducts deliver lymph? A. AortaB. Inferior vena cavaC. Subclavian veinD. None of these are correct.

9. Which duct drains lymph from the head, the right arm, and the right side of the thorax? A. Right lymphatic ductB. Thoracic ductC. Subclavian veinD. None of these are correct.

10. Which duct drains lymph from parts of the body other than the head, the right arm, and the right side of the thorax? A. Right lymphatic ductB. Thoracic ductC. Subclavian veinD. None of these are correct.

11. What moves lymph through lymph vessels? A. The muscular layer of the lymph vesselB. The skeletal muscle pumpC. The valves within the lymph vesselD. None of these are correct.

12. The lymphatic system is closely connected to what other system? A. NervousB. EndocrineC. CardiovascularD. Muscular

13. Which lymphatic disorder is a tropical disease caused by a round worm that blocks lymphatic drainage? A. LymphadenitisB. ElephantiasisC. AllergiesD. HIV/AIDS

14. Which of the following is not a category of cells found in the lymphatic system? A. Natural killer cellsB. T lymphocytesC. B lymphocytesD. Monocytes

15. Which cell type destroys bacteria, fight against transplanted tissues, attack cells infected by viruses, and destroy cancer cells? A. Natural killer cellsB. T Helper cellsC. B Plasma cellsD. Monocytes

16. Which cell type stands guard to alert the body of pathogens entering through the skin? A. Natural killer cellsB. T Helper cellsC. B Plasma cellsD. Dendritic cells

17. What type of T cell suppresses an immune response by inhibiting multiplication and chemical secretions from other T cells? A. T Cytotoxic cellsB. T Helper cellsC. T Memory cellsD. T Regulatory cells

18. What type of T cells are important for nonspecific defense and specific immunity by recognizing foreign pathogens and activating the cells to fight them? A. T Cytotoxic cellsB. T Helper cellsC. T Memory cellsD. T Regulatory cells

19. What type of T cells directly kill cells infected by viruses and cancer cells in specific immunity? A. T Cytotoxic cellsB. T Helper cellsC. T Memory cellsD. T Regulatory cells

20. Which type of B cell constantly samples material from their environment, processes it, and then displays it for other cells to see? A. BPlasma cellsB. BMemory cellsC. APCsD. None of these are correct.

21. Which type of B cell is important in specific immunity because they produce antibodies, which are dissolved proteins in plasma that seek out specific foreign antigens for their destruction? A. BPlasma cellsB. BMemory cellsC. APCsD. None of these are correct.

22. Which type of B cell remembers pathogens that have been introduced to the body so that repeated exposure can be fought more swiftly? A. BPlasma cellsB. BMemory cellsC. APCsD. None of these are correct.

23. What lymphoid tissue is scattered throughout the mucous membranes lining tracts to the outside environment? A. MALTB. Peyer's patchesC. Lymph nodesD. Tonsils

24. What lymphoid tissue is located at the distal end of the small intestine, just before the opening to the large intestine? A. MALTB. Peyer's patchesC. Lymph nodesD. Tonsils

25. What is the function of Peyer's patches? A. Stand guard against and fight any pathogens trying to enter the body.B. Fight any bacteria moving into the small intestine from the colon.C. Remove anything that may be potentially harmful in lymph.D. Guard against pathogens entering the body through the nose or mouth.

26. What lymphoid tissue guards against pathogens entering the body through the nose or mouth? A. MALTB. Peyer's patchesC. Lymph nodesD. Tonsils

27. What lymphoid tissue removes anything that may be potentially harmful in lymph? A. MALTB. Peyer's patchesC. Lymph nodesD. Tonsils

28. Which lymphatic disorder is characterized by a lymph node that has become swollen and painful to the touch as a pathogen is being attacked by the lymph node's lymphocytes? A. LymphadenitisB. ElephantiasisC. AllergiesD. HIV/AIDS

29. Where are the adenoids located? A. The roof of the nasopharynxB. Laterally in the oropharynxC. At the root of the tongueD. None of these are correct.

30. Where are the palatine tonsils located? A. The roof of the nasopharynxB. Laterally in the oropharynxC. At the root of the tongueD. None of these are correct.

31. T-cells migrate from the red bone marrow to what organ to mature? A. SpleenB. TonsilsC. ThymusD. Peyer's patches

32. Which statement about the thymus is false? A. T-cells migrate from the red bone marrow to the thymus gland where they mature.B. The thymus is located in the superior mediastinum between the sternum and the aortic arch.C. The thymus is well developed at birth and continues to develop during adulthood.D. All of the statements are true.

33. What part of the spleen serves as a reservoir for lymphocytes and macrophages? A. Red pulpB. White pulpC. Both red and white pulpD. None of these are correct.

34. Which of the following is not one of the three lines of defense? A. External barriersB. InflammationC. Specific immunityD. Antibiotic proteins

35. Which of the following is not considered part of the nonspecific resistance? A. External barriersB. InflammationC. Specific immunityD. Fever

36. Which of the following is true about nonspecific resistance and specific immunity? A. Nonspecific defenses are widespread, meaning they work to fight many pathogens without prior exposure.B. Specific defenses work to fend off any pathogen in the same way every time the pathogen comes along in the body.C. Specific immunity requires a prior exposure to a pathogen so the system can recognize the pathogen.D. All of these statements are true.

37. Which of the following does not fall under the first line of defense? A. SkinB. Mucous membranesC. TearsD. Antimicrobial proteins

38. Which of the following falls under the second line of defense? A. InflammationB. Mucous membranesC. TearsD. Mucus

39. How does keratin in skin help defend the body? A. It forms an acid mantle which bacteria do not like.B. It traps microbes.C. It is a tough protein that bacteria cannot easily break through.D. Neither answer is correct.

40. All of the following are functions of mucus and mucous membranes except which one? A. Trap microbes.B. Destroy pathogens.C. Inhibit pathogens from progressing.D. Initiate tissue repair.

41. All of the following are functions of inflammation except which one? A. Trap microbes.B. Remove debris and damaged tissue.C. Limit the spread of pathogens.D. Initiate tissue repair.

42. What is the correct sequence of events in the inflammatory process? A. Vasodilation – margination – diapedesis – chemotaxis – phagocytosisB. Vasodilation – diapedesis – chemotaxis – margination – phagocytosisC. Vasodilation – margination – phagocytosis – diapedesis – chemotaxisD. Vasodilation – diapedesis – margination – chemotaxis – phagocytosis

43. What are interferons? A. Proteins activated by the presence of a pathogenB. Chemicals released by virally-infected cells that encourage the production of anti-viral proteinsC. Chemicals that raise the body temperatureD. Chemicals released by damaged tissue to cause blood vessels to widen

44. What is the complement system? A. A set of 20 inactive proteins activated by the presence of a pathogenB. Chemicals released by virally-infected cells that encourage the production of anti-viral proteinC. Chemicals that raise the body temperatureD. Chemicals released by damaged tissue to cause blood vessels to widen

45. What are pyrogens? A. A set of 20 inactive proteins activated by the presence of a pathogenB. Chemicals released by virally-infected cells that encourage the production of anti-viral proteinsC. Chemicals released by activated macrophages that raise the body temperatureD. Chemicals released by damaged tissue to cause blood vessels to widen

46. Which of the following statements describes the function of basophils in the second line of defense? A. Fight bacteria.B. Release histamine to promote inflammation.C. Attack worm parasites.D. Become macrophages to phagocytize bacteria.

47. Which of the following statements describes the function of monocytes in the second line of defense? A. Fight bacteria.B. Release histamine to promote inflammation.C. Attack worm parasites.D. Become macrophages to phagocytize bacteria.

48. Which of the following statements describes the function of neutrophils in the second line of defense? A. Fight bacteria.B. Release histamine to promote inflammation.C. Attack worm parasites.D. Become macrophages to phagocytize bacteria.

49. Which of the following statements describes the function of eosinophils in the second line of defense? A. Fight bacteria.B. Release histamine to promote inflammation.C. Attack worm parasites.D. Become macrophages to phagocytize bacteria.

50. Which statement is false about MHC and APC? A. MHC protein displays what is self and what is foreign.B. If the epitope in the MHC is foreign a specific immune response is initiated.C. Epitopes are displayed on an MHC protein on the surface of the APC.D. MHCs process antigens and APCs present what was processed.

51. Which of the following statements about humoral immunity is false? A. Humoral immunity involves B cells making antibodies.B. Plasma B cells produce specific antibodies.C. Humoral immunity begins when an APC in lymphoid tissue displays an epitope from its environment on an MHC protein.D. Humoral immunity is also called cell-mediated immunity.

52. How long does it take for humoral immunity to accomplish antibody production in the first exposure to the pathogen? A. 3-6 daysB. 2-5 daysC. 13-16 daysD. None of these are correct.

53. How long does it take for humoral immunity to accomplish antibody production in the second exposure to the pathogen? A. 3-6 daysB. 2-5 daysC. 13-16 daysD. None of these are correct.

54. In humoral immunity, B cells clone themselves in the germinal centers of the lymphatic nodules to become what two types of cells? A. Natural killer cells and helper cellsB. Natural killer cells and memory cellsC. Helper cells and plasma cellsD. Plasma cells and memory cells

55. Cellular immunity is not effective against what? A. Cancer cellsB. Virally-infected cellsC. A bacterial skin infectionD. All of these answers are correct.

56. Humoral immunity is effective against what? A. Cancer cellsB. Virally-infected cellsC. Pathogens present in the tissuesD. All of these answers are correct.

57. Which cells are involved in humoral immunity? A. NeutrophilsB. T Cytotoxic cellsC. Plasma cellsD. Basophils

58. Which cells are involved in cellular immunity? A. NeutrophilsB. T Cytotoxic cellsC. Plasma cellsD. Memory cells

59. Which cells are involved in both humoral and cellular immunity? A. T Helper cellsB. T Cytotoxic cellsC. Plasma cellsD. Memory cells

60. In cellular immunity, which cells secrete interleukins to attract neutrophils and NK cells to the area, attract and activate macrophages to clean up any debris, and further activate more T cells and B cells? A. T Cytotoxic cellsB. T Helper cellsC. T Memory cellsD. T Regulatory cells

61. In cellular immunity, which cells directly attack a pathogen or cancer cell? A. T Cytotoxic cellsB. T Helper cellsC. T Memory cellsD. T Regulatory cells

62. Aiden is a 4 month old baby boy. When he was born his mother decided to breast feed him, instead of using formula. What type of immunity will baby Aiden develop from receiving mom's antibodies through her breast milk? A. Natural active immunityB. Natural passive immunityC. Artificial active immunityD. Artificial passive immunity

63. Gavin turned 4 years old and received vaccinations at his yearly physical examination. What type of immunity will Gavin develop from the vaccinations he receives? A. Natural active immunityB. Natural passive immunityC. Artificial active immunityD. Artificial passive immunity

64. Beth was hiking the mountains and got bitten by a rattlesnake. When she arrived at the hospital, she was given anti-venom to combat the snake bite. What type of immunity will Beth develop from the anti-venom? A. Natural active immunityB. Natural passive immunityC. Artificial active immunityD. Artificial passive immunity

65. Mary got the chicken pox from her little brother when she was 6. She will most likely not contract this disease again. What type of immunity is described in this scenario? A. Natural active immunityB. Natural passive immunityC. Artificial active immunityD. Artificial passive immunity

66. What term is used to indicate that the body created its own immunity? A. PassiveB. ActiveC. NaturalD. Artificial

67. What term is used to indicate the immunity was acquired through someone or something else? A. PassiveB. ActiveC. NaturalD. Artificial

68. Which statement is false regarding T cells? A. T Helper cells activate macrophages for nonspecific defenses like inflammation and fever.B. In cellular immunity, T Helper cells first recognize what is foreign and then release interleukin-2 to have B cells react by cloning themselves and producing antibodies.C. In cellular immunity T Helper cells recognize what is foreign and release interleukin-1 to get T Cytotoxic cells to clone themselves and attack.D. All of these statements are true.

69. Which statement is false regarding T cells? A. T Helper cells activate macrophages for nonspecific defenses like inflammation and fever.B. Inhumoral immunity, T Helper cells first recognize what is foreign and then release interleukin-2 to have B cells react by cloning themselves and producing antibodies.C. In cellular immunity T Helper cells recognize what is foreign and release interleukin-1 to get T Cytotoxic cells to clone themselves and attack.D. All of these statements are true.

70. Which of the following are functions of the lymphatic system? A. Fluid balanceB. Lipid absorptionC. Defense against diseaseD. All of the answers are correct.

71. Which of the following is true about the effects of aging on the lymphatic system? A. B cell production will decrease.B. T cells production will decrease.C. The hypersensitivity response will increase causing allergies to become worse.D. T cells production will increase.

72. Which type of T cell is affected by HIV? A. T Cytotoxic cellsB. T Helper cellsC. T Memory cellsD. T Regulatory cells

73. What causes acquired immunodeficiency syndrome? A. LymphadenitisB. ElephantiasisC. AllergiesD. HIV

74. Rheumatoid arthritis, Graves' disease, and myasthenia gravis all are examples of what kind of lymphatic disorder? A. LymphadenitisB. AutoimmuneC. AllergiesD. HIV/AIDS

75. What lymphatic disorder is characterized by a hypersensitivity to a foreign antigen? A. LymphadenitisB. ElephantiasisC. AllergiesD. HIV/AIDS

Week 4 Multiple Choice Questions